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(A) Loss of flexion
of the interphalangeal joint The correct response is Option A. Hand deformities associated with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis typically differ from those seen in adult patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Affected pediatric patients have wrist flexion with loss of wrist extension. The carpus and metacarpals are deviated ulnarly, and loss of flexion and radial deviation of the metacarpophalangeal joints is characteristic. In addition, there is a loss of flexion of the interphalangeal joints. Swan-neck and boutonnire deformities and spontaneous tendon ruptures are rare. In contrast, adults with rheumatoid arthritis exhibit radial deviation and supination of the carpus. The metacarpophalangeal joints are subluxed palmarly and deviated ulnarly. Swan-neck deformities, boutonnire deformities, and spontaneous tendon ruptures occur in significant numbers.
PHOTO A 34-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with marked pain and swelling on the radial side of the right hand after falling on his outstretched hand. Radiographs are shown above. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? (A) Closed reduction
of a complex dislocation of the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb
Based on the above radiographs, this patient has a dislocation of the carpometacarpal (CMC) joint of the thumb, a rare injury. The metacarpophalangeal joint is not involved. Dislocations of the CMC joint at the base of the small finger are more common. Closed reduction of the dislocated joint should be performed as soon as possible; this can be accomplished by applying axial traction and pronation combined with manual pressure over the metacarpal base. Because CMC joint dislocations in the thumb are frequently accompanied by complete tears of the palmar oblique ligament (volar beak ligament), further management should include Kirschner wire stabilization and casting if the dislocation is unstable. Patients with stable dislocations may require casting only. Immobilization and stabilization of the ligament tear will protect the ligament during healing. There is no associated fracture in this patient. Open reduction and internal fixation are recommended for management of displaced scaphoid fractures. Perilunate dislocation would be demonstrated by incongruity of Gilula's arcs on posteroanterior radiographs and by subluxation of the capitate from its articulation with the lunate. Trapezoid fractures can be subtle on standard radiographs of the wrist; fluoroscopic imaging or CT scans may be beneficial. Because trapezoid fractures are typically stable and nondisplaced, cast immobilization alone is indicated.
A 54-year-old violinist has severe posttraumatic osteoarthritis of the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint of the nondominant left long finger. She has severe pain and limited finger use despite administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and protection of the joint. Radiographs show fracture union, adequate metacarpal and phalangeal bone stock, and severe degenerative arthritis of the MP joint. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of the MP joint? (A) Perichondrial
autograft arthroplasty
This 54-year-old violinist with posttraumatic arthritis of the MP joint of the long finger requires motion. Therefore, the most appropriate management is silicone implant arthroplasty of the MP joint. This procedure will alleviate pain and yield good range of motion of the joint.
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